Daveo Member D Join Date May 2010 Location Arkansas Posts 2 May 18, 2010 #1 Anyone know how to use one MAM to bypass another MAM? How do you set up the second MAM in the logic?
Daveo Member OP D Join Date May 2010 Location Arkansas Posts 2 May 18, 2010 #2 The first MAM is an absolute home position. Just need to be able to have alternitive home positions for this servo.
The first MAM is an absolute home position. Just need to be able to have alternitive home positions for this servo.
rdrast Lifetime Supporting Member Join Date Apr 2003 Location South Carolina Lowcountry Posts 5,544 May 19, 2010 #3 Why bypass it? If it's running, issue a MAS, update the position in the MAM to the new target, and re-issue the MAM. If it's not running, just update the target position, and run it. DO NOT USE THE SAME CONTROL TAG FOR MULTIPLE MOTION INSTRUCTIONS. Just sayin' Peter might have better information on this, as he's somewhat familiar with the motion controller
Why bypass it? If it's running, issue a MAS, update the position in the MAM to the new target, and re-issue the MAM. If it's not running, just update the target position, and run it. DO NOT USE THE SAME CONTROL TAG FOR MULTIPLE MOTION INSTRUCTIONS. Just sayin' Peter might have better information on this, as he's somewhat familiar with the motion controller
TimWilborne Lifetime Supporting Member Join Date Oct 2005 Location Roanoke, VA Posts 2,210 May 19, 2010 #4 Why not just use an MRP?