I was told that in the ideal case the inertia of the motor is equal to the inertia of the mechanical system.
That a higher inertia for the mechanical system then for the motor would be worse, I can understand. But what if the inertia of the mechanical system is (much) smaller the inertia of the motor, why would this be worse for the system then a 1:1 ratio? What is the phylosofy behind this one to one relationship of the inertias of motor and mechanical system?
That a higher inertia for the mechanical system then for the motor would be worse, I can understand. But what if the inertia of the mechanical system is (much) smaller the inertia of the motor, why would this be worse for the system then a 1:1 ratio? What is the phylosofy behind this one to one relationship of the inertias of motor and mechanical system?