Is there a way to reset many timers with one rung?

rsdoran said:
Is there a difference in resetting the timers from moving/copying 0 into the accumulator word?

In A-B land, yes. Issuing a RES command will clear the timer value and reset the DN bit. Merely loading the ACC value with zero does not reset the done bit.
 
Ok...that I got cuz I learned on AB. I assumed that the timers were accumulating but needed reset...no mention was made of a done bit being activated...isnt it standard procedure to use the done bit to reset a timer? or whatever action the done bit enables?

SINCE retentive was NEVER mentioned in original post and ONLY in one reply lets omit that in the equation...reset is reset overall, retentive or not.

YES I am a student.
 
Re: Reverse engineering is such fun.

Allen Nelson said:
So it would seem that the "real" time base is stored with the TON instruction, and that bit 9 is only used for the programmer's benefit.

This is good info, Allen!... (y)

That means that you couldn't make the timebase 'user selectable' from say, an HMI. Not that I have ever needed to do that, but it's good to know ahead of time that you CAN'T.

One question though... When you manually change the /9 bit, does it toggle back to it's original value when the timer instruction executes?

beerchug

-Eric
 
corretion...

just to avoid confusion ...

shark's thread is ok but has to be corrected .....


for example if you have timer "t37" and "t38" and you want to reset them in one rung , or you can reset more than two timers as illustrated below :


LD I0.0
R T37 , 1
R T38 , 1
.
.

.
and so on .....

or you can simply do it like this :

LD I0.0
R T37 , 2

this will reset timer t37 and t38, if you have more than two timers for example t39 , t40..then instead of " 2 " use "4" this will reset timers from t37 ---> t40.

please take a note , the above illustration will work fine with siemens PLC's as i've tried it many times before ... i dont know about AB or other brands.
hope this help..

best regards.khalil.
 
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