Question for the math professors ...

daba

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... I followed a link dealing with Permutations and Combinations, and learnt a (to me) startling fact !

0 * 0 = 0 agreed ?

0 * 0 * 0 = 0 agreed again ?


so how does 0! = 1 ?

This has got me confused, perplexed, bamboozled, and a few other cliches.....

How can 0 * anything else not be zero ??
 
I looked it up. I'm not sure its deeper but it is a better definition.

Evaluate the expression 1.5!

The factorial is the product of all positive integers less than or equal to n.
The formula for a factorial is:
n! = n x (n - 1) x (n - 2) x ... x 2 x 1

Evaluate the expression 1.5!
Factorial Expansions are as follows:
1.5! = 1.5 x 0.5 = 0.75

Now multiply out our factorial expansions:
1.5! = 0.75

Edit: I still don't get the 0!=1 ,but I'm not a professor or a Doctor.
 
Last edited:
The factorial function is actually a continuous function. You can find the factor of real numbers too. Th function starts is not continuous for negative numbers.

n! = integrate(x^n*exp(-x),0,inf)
n is the integral of x^n*exp(-x) as x goes from 0 to infinity

1.5! = 1.329.
0.5! = 0.886
https://deltamotion.com/peter/Mathcad/Mathcad - factorial.pdf
Notice that is gets the answers you expect for all the integers including 0! = 1.
 
Not to provide an alternate reason to the math PeterN mentions, but I have a vague memory that when 0! is defined as one, then the binomial coefficients* can be calculated via the formula


a2457a7ef3c77831e34e06a1fe17a80b84a03181


i.e. neither denominator term will be zero when k=0 or k=n.



* see also Pascal's Triangle
 
The general formula of factorial can be written in fully expanded form as
n! = n·(n-1)·(n-2)·...·3·2·1
or in partially expanded form as
n! = n · (n-1)!
We know with absolute certainty that 1!=1, where n = 1. If we substitute that value of n into the second formula which is the partially expanded form of n!, we obtain the following:
n!=n×(n-1)!
1!=1×(1-1)!
1!=1×0!
For the equation to be true, we must force the value of zero factorial to equal 1, and no other. Otherwise, 1!≠1 which is a contradiction.

So yes, 0! = 1 is correct because mathematicians agreed to define it that way (nothing more and nothing less) in order to be consistent with the rest of mathematics.
 
Last edited:
n!=n×(n-1)!
1!=1×(1-1)!
1!=1×0!
For the equation to be true, we must force the value of zero factorial to equal 1, and no other. Otherwise, 1!≠1 which is a contradiction.

So yes, 0! = 1 is correct because mathematicians agreed to define it that way (nothing more and nothing less) in order to be consistent with the rest of mathematics.

Yes, but the first term on the right when n=0 is "0 x {something}". Forcing 0! to be 1 makes the equation incorrect... So, as you said, it's an agreed fudge ....
 
Yes, but the first term on the right when n=0 is "0 x {something}". Forcing 0! to be 1 makes the equation incorrect... So, as you said, it's an agreed fudge ....


It isn't a fudge. I showed how n! can be calculated even it it is a real. Just look at the link I posted above.


n! is related to the gamma function.

If
5! = 120
then 4! = 5!/5 = 24
then 3! = 4!/4 = 6
then 2! = 3!/3 = 2
then 1! = 2!/2 = 1
then 0! = 1!/1 = 1
Simple, don't make it hard.
 

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