plc_user1973
Member
This is a very stupid question, but leave it too me to ask it.
I was wondering why is it IMPEDANCE of a inductor is
2PI(FL) for a square wave pulse train also? I will presume that it is because it is a periodic function.
With a sinusoidal function:
Z for an inductor is 2PI(FL) where 2PI(F) = w(omega)
I understand that v= Ldi/dt where i(t)=cos(wt+O) and that for a deveritive of di/dt brings some of the constants outside the function etc.
Doings some algrebra and arrangment for an inductor it is found that Z=2PIFL
My question is how how do we come to the same conclusion that Z=2PI(FL) for square-wave pulse trains also?
Thanks
I was wondering why is it IMPEDANCE of a inductor is
2PI(FL) for a square wave pulse train also? I will presume that it is because it is a periodic function.
With a sinusoidal function:
Z for an inductor is 2PI(FL) where 2PI(F) = w(omega)
I understand that v= Ldi/dt where i(t)=cos(wt+O) and that for a deveritive of di/dt brings some of the constants outside the function etc.
Doings some algrebra and arrangment for an inductor it is found that Z=2PIFL
My question is how how do we come to the same conclusion that Z=2PI(FL) for square-wave pulse trains also?
Thanks